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PCCN Revision Questions 2023
Blood-sugar elevation in the critically ill adult is common. Which of the following mechanisms explain this increase in blood sugar in the non-diabetic patient? 
A. medications such as epinephrine 
B. shivering 
C. temperature elevation 
D. change in position 
Correct Answers A. medications such as epinephrine 
Epinephrine is a pure catecholamine. This activates the sympathetic nervous system thereby increasing blood sugar by the fight or flight mechanism. Shivering, temperature elevation and...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 40 pages •
Blood-sugar elevation in the critically ill adult is common. Which of the following mechanisms explain this increase in blood sugar in the non-diabetic patient? 
A. medications such as epinephrine 
B. shivering 
C. temperature elevation 
D. change in position 
Correct Answers A. medications such as epinephrine 
Epinephrine is a pure catecholamine. This activates the sympathetic nervous system thereby increasing blood sugar by the fight or flight mechanism. Shivering, temperature elevation and...
PCCN Revision Flashcards
epoetin alfa anemia related to chronic kidney disease should be treated with ______________________. 
 
folic acid, Vitamin B12 Name two treatments for megaloblastic anemia. 
 
infection Glucose control (via insulin drip) in the post-CABG patient decreases the risk of ___________________. 
 
acidosis In acute oliguric kidney injury, hyperkalemia leads to ____________________. 
 
right Obstructive-sleep apnea patients are at risk for ________-sided heart failure. 
 
hydration Acute pancreatitis p...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 21 pages •
epoetin alfa anemia related to chronic kidney disease should be treated with ______________________. 
 
folic acid, Vitamin B12 Name two treatments for megaloblastic anemia. 
 
infection Glucose control (via insulin drip) in the post-CABG patient decreases the risk of ___________________. 
 
acidosis In acute oliguric kidney injury, hyperkalemia leads to ____________________. 
 
right Obstructive-sleep apnea patients are at risk for ________-sided heart failure. 
 
hydration Acute pancreatitis p...
PCCN Review – Cardiac with Complete Rationale
Under the Fontaine classification for peripheral vascular disease, intermittent claudication occurs at: 
-Stage I 
-Stage II 
-Stage III 
-Stage IV Correct Answers Stage II 
Stage I disease (pathological arterial changes) produces no symptoms. 
Stage II is representative of a 75% occlusion and the patient will exhibit intermittent claudication. 
Stage III represents 90-95% occlusion and the patient will have pain at rest. 
Stage IV is a 99-100% occulsion that will result in necrosis if not treat...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 58 pages •
Under the Fontaine classification for peripheral vascular disease, intermittent claudication occurs at: 
-Stage I 
-Stage II 
-Stage III 
-Stage IV Correct Answers Stage II 
Stage I disease (pathological arterial changes) produces no symptoms. 
Stage II is representative of a 75% occlusion and the patient will exhibit intermittent claudication. 
Stage III represents 90-95% occlusion and the patient will have pain at rest. 
Stage IV is a 99-100% occulsion that will result in necrosis if not treat...
PCCN questions with Correct Answers
Two days following a near-drowning accident, a pt is dyspneic, using accessory muscles, expectorating large amounts of secretions and reporting feeling of impending death. Changes to the assessment data include 
RR- 24 TO 36 
CXR clear to bilateral diffuse infiltrates 
ABG 40% face mask or 100% non-rebreather mask 
pO2 120 mm Hg to 56 mm Hg 
pCO2 33 mmHg to 56 mmHg 
pH 7.42 to 7.35 
HCO3 24 meq/L to 27 mEq/L 
 
Which of the ff do these changes most likely represent 
A. aspiration pneumonia 
B. p...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 34 pages •
Two days following a near-drowning accident, a pt is dyspneic, using accessory muscles, expectorating large amounts of secretions and reporting feeling of impending death. Changes to the assessment data include 
RR- 24 TO 36 
CXR clear to bilateral diffuse infiltrates 
ABG 40% face mask or 100% non-rebreather mask 
pO2 120 mm Hg to 56 mm Hg 
pCO2 33 mmHg to 56 mmHg 
pH 7.42 to 7.35 
HCO3 24 meq/L to 27 mEq/L 
 
Which of the ff do these changes most likely represent 
A. aspiration pneumonia 
B. p...
PCCN questions with Correct Answers
Two days following a near-drowning accident, a pt is dyspneic, using accessory muscles, expectorating large amounts of secretions and reporting feeling of impending death. Changes to the assessment data include 
RR- 24 TO 36 
CXR clear to bilateral diffuse infiltrates 
ABG 40% face mask or 100% non-rebreather mask 
pO2 120 mm Hg to 56 mm Hg 
pCO2 33 mmHg to 56 mmHg 
pH 7.42 to 7.35 
HCO3 24 meq/L to 27 mEq/L 
 
Which of the ff do these changes most likely represent 
A. aspiration pneumonia 
B. p...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 34 pages •
Two days following a near-drowning accident, a pt is dyspneic, using accessory muscles, expectorating large amounts of secretions and reporting feeling of impending death. Changes to the assessment data include 
RR- 24 TO 36 
CXR clear to bilateral diffuse infiltrates 
ABG 40% face mask or 100% non-rebreather mask 
pO2 120 mm Hg to 56 mm Hg 
pCO2 33 mmHg to 56 mmHg 
pH 7.42 to 7.35 
HCO3 24 meq/L to 27 mEq/L 
 
Which of the ff do these changes most likely represent 
A. aspiration pneumonia 
B. p...
PCCN practice exam notes
Pt on Vtach, HR 135, RR 32, BP 90/48, conscious but c/o dizziness, recent K+ lvl is 3.4. What action would you do first? 
a. emergent defib 
b. amio 300mg IVP 
c. emergent cardioversion 
d. hang 10 mEq KCL/50mL D5W Correct Answers C 
 
The nurse notes the following when analyzing a patient's telemetry strip: HR, 65/min and regular; PR interval, 0.22 seconds; QRS complex, 0.10 seconds; QTc, 0.52 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the patient at risk for? 
 
A. Atrial fibrillation be...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 14 pages •
Pt on Vtach, HR 135, RR 32, BP 90/48, conscious but c/o dizziness, recent K+ lvl is 3.4. What action would you do first? 
a. emergent defib 
b. amio 300mg IVP 
c. emergent cardioversion 
d. hang 10 mEq KCL/50mL D5W Correct Answers C 
 
The nurse notes the following when analyzing a patient's telemetry strip: HR, 65/min and regular; PR interval, 0.22 seconds; QRS complex, 0.10 seconds; QTc, 0.52 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the patient at risk for? 
 
A. Atrial fibrillation be...
PCCN Cardiac Review
Calculate the cardiac output for a pt with a HR of 70 and a SV of 65 ml. Correct Answers HR X SV=CO 
70 X 65= 4550 
4.6 L/min 
 
Calculate the cardiac output for a pt with a HR of 70 and a SV of 65 ml. 
HR X SV=CO Correct Answers HR X SV=CO 
70 X 65= 4550 
4.6 L/min 
 
What % of the cardiac cycle is provided by the atrial kick? 
• 15% 
• 20% 
• 30% 
• 35% Correct Answers20% 
 
Atrial kick is a term that represents the amount of the total CO that is supplied via atrial contraction. 
If th...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 50 pages •
Calculate the cardiac output for a pt with a HR of 70 and a SV of 65 ml. Correct Answers HR X SV=CO 
70 X 65= 4550 
4.6 L/min 
 
Calculate the cardiac output for a pt with a HR of 70 and a SV of 65 ml. 
HR X SV=CO Correct Answers HR X SV=CO 
70 X 65= 4550 
4.6 L/min 
 
What % of the cardiac cycle is provided by the atrial kick? 
• 15% 
• 20% 
• 30% 
• 35% Correct Answers20% 
 
Atrial kick is a term that represents the amount of the total CO that is supplied via atrial contraction. 
If th...
CNOR
What is the Nursing Practice Act? 
A A Federal Law that is designed to protect the public from incompetent nursing caregivers 
B A detailed list of activities carried out by nurses during their daily work. 
C It is a body of State law that mandates the State Nursing Board to set out the scope of practice and responsibilities for RNs in that state. 
D Is charged with tracking and investigating public health trends Correct Answer It is a body of State law that mandates the State Nursing Board ...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 10 pages •
What is the Nursing Practice Act? 
A A Federal Law that is designed to protect the public from incompetent nursing caregivers 
B A detailed list of activities carried out by nurses during their daily work. 
C It is a body of State law that mandates the State Nursing Board to set out the scope of practice and responsibilities for RNs in that state. 
D Is charged with tracking and investigating public health trends Correct Answer It is a body of State law that mandates the State Nursing Board ...
CNOR
The tourniquet cuff should overlap: Correct Answer at least three inches but not more than 6 inches. 
LOP (Limb Occlusion Pressure) can be defined as Correct Answer the minimum pressure required to stop the flow of arterial blood into the limb distal to the cuff 
Cuff inflation pressure should be adjusted by adding a safety margin to the LOP: Correct Answer Add 40 mmHg for LOP <130 mmHg 
 Add 60 mmHg for LOP between 131 and 190 mmHg 
 Add 80 mmHg for LOP >190 mmHg 
 For pediatric patien...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 23 pages •
The tourniquet cuff should overlap: Correct Answer at least three inches but not more than 6 inches. 
LOP (Limb Occlusion Pressure) can be defined as Correct Answer the minimum pressure required to stop the flow of arterial blood into the limb distal to the cuff 
Cuff inflation pressure should be adjusted by adding a safety margin to the LOP: Correct Answer Add 40 mmHg for LOP <130 mmHg 
 Add 60 mmHg for LOP between 131 and 190 mmHg 
 Add 80 mmHg for LOP >190 mmHg 
 For pediatric patien...
CNOR
Suture is defined as: Correct Answer a genetic term for all material used to repair and the-approximate incited or torn tissue. 
Suture material have 3 properties: Correct Answer Physical characteristics (tensile strength, memory) 
Handling characteristic (pliability) 
Tissue-reaction characteristic (absorption) 
Suture is composed of two main categories: Correct Answer absorbable and non-absorbable 
Absorbable =surgical gut 
Collagen sutures used in eye surgeries 
Synthetic absorbed le sut...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 7 pages •
Suture is defined as: Correct Answer a genetic term for all material used to repair and the-approximate incited or torn tissue. 
Suture material have 3 properties: Correct Answer Physical characteristics (tensile strength, memory) 
Handling characteristic (pliability) 
Tissue-reaction characteristic (absorption) 
Suture is composed of two main categories: Correct Answer absorbable and non-absorbable 
Absorbable =surgical gut 
Collagen sutures used in eye surgeries 
Synthetic absorbed le sut...