HCA255 Week 5 Quiz(Already graded A )
HCA255 Week 5 Quiz Latest 2018
1. Which of the following factors that affect supply do NOT shift the supply graph to the right?
Size of the industry
2. There is a negative relation between income and the demand for health care: the richer the country, the greater the demand for health care.
3. _______ costs are easily identified because a recent market transaction is available to provide an accurate measure of costs
4. In general, goods and services which are close substitutes have higher price elasticities
5. ________ is the sole provider of a good or service in a well defined market with no close substitutions.
6. _______ examines how changes in market conditions influence the positions of the demand and supply curve and cause the equilibrium price and quantity to change.
Marginal private benefit
Marginal private cost
7. If the percentage increase in the quantity consumed is greater than the associated percentage increase in income the good is called___
8. A good for which income elasticity is positive but less than one. The good is called a(n) ___
9. The ___ effect would encourage the substitution of other consumer goods for investment in health as one ages.
10. Which is not a state health incentive?
The Oregon Health Plan
Hawaii’s Universal Coverage
California Universal Health Coverage
BU480 Online Quiz Set 2(Already graded A+)
BU480 Online Quiz Set 2
Question 1 (5 points)
Companies can choose from five main possibilities to target market segments. Which of the following is NOT one of the possibilities?
Question 2 (5 points)
__________ coalitions are those set up among firms with complementary business activities.
Question 3 (5 points)
An important dimension of the __________ environment that impacts the development and use of the Internet is online usage patterns.
political and legal
Question 4 (5 points)
The industry environment includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Question 5 (5 points)
The __________ environment relates to issues on different organizational levels. At country and industry levels, it includes issues such as taxation, monopoly legislation, and environmental laws.
political and legal
Question 6 (5 points)
Age, gender, income, and lifestyle are related to __________ segmentation.
Question 7 (5 points)
The attractiveness of market segments can be analyzed through:
full market scanning.
the five forces framework.
Question 8 (5 points)
The use of __________ contributes to reducing the extent of capital that was traditionally required to enter into an industry. An example is cloud computing.
Internet accessibility tools
customer relationship management (CRM)
information and communication technologies (ICT)
Question 9 (5 points)
__________ determine(s) the threat of new competitors entering the market of a specific industry.
Barriers to entry
Question 10 (5 points)
The application of Porter\'s model can suggest to the business analyst the likely:
profitability of the product.
bargaining power of the firm.
rivalry within the industry.
Question 11 (5 points)
External analysis results in the identification of __________ factors that impact the competitive position and profitability of all organizations within an industry.
Question 12 (5 points)
__________ tends to raise bargaining power over suppliers, though it can also give suppliers access to more customers.
The proliferation of Internet approaches
Lowers variable cost relative to fixed cost
A flood of new entrants to the industry
Procurement using the Internet
Question 13 (5 points)
Internal analysis results in the identification of __________ factors that impact the competitive position and profitability of an organization.
Question 14 (5 points)
The e-business __________ provides an overview of the different participants in electronic business.
market segmentation matrix
target market matrix
environmental scanning grid
Question 15 (5 points)
Personality type and personal interests are related to __________ segmentation.
Question 16 (5 points)
The __________ organizes an industry into strategic groups and types, summarizing the industry according to all significant factors.
five basic forces
Question 17 (5 points)
EBay has created strong barriers to entry for potential competitors through:
the large customer base it has created over the past few years.
strong intellectual property protection.
information and communication technologies (ICT).
Question 18 (5 points)
Identifying external strategic factors includes all EXCEPT:
identifying likely emerging trends.
assessing the probability of trends actually occurring.
attempting to identify the impact of each trend on the corporation being examined.
determining an approach to addressing each of the trends.
Question 19 (5 points)
Joint __________ between different firms can offer the opportunity for improving quality, increasing demand or streamlining procurement.
setting of technology
Question 20 (5 points)
________ can be a valuable option to increase revenues, since it limits customer acquisition costs.
BU480 Online Quiz Set 1(Already graded A+)
BU480 Online Quiz Set 1
Question 1 (5 points)
The Internet can change __________ by introducing substitute products, increasing the bargaining power of suppliers or of consumers and buyers, and by changing existing barriers to entry.
industry value chains
firm value chains
Question 2 (5 points)
__________ refer(s) to a firm\'s ability through IT and the Internet to turn resources into valuable products or services.
Question 3 (5 points)
__________ strategy, also known as functional-level strategy, deals with how to implement the business unit strategy with regard to resources, processes, and people.
Question 4 (5 points)
__________ deals with the facilitation of transactions and selling of products and services online.
Question 5 (5 points)
The most common online retail business models include all of the following EXCEPT:
Question 6 (5 points)
Firm __________ can be directly affected by e-commerce through its potential impact on how the business performs various business processes such as warehousing, manufacturing, sales, and customer support.
technological support systems
Question 7 (5 points)
Before the Internet became a widely used platform for conducting e-business transactions, companies were already using other information and communication technologies (ICT) infrastructures. These included all EXCEPT:
electronic data interchange (EDI).
customer relationship management (CRM).
public IT platforms.
inter-organizational information systems (IOS).
Question 8 (5 points)
Within organizations, we typically recognize the following three different levels of strategy. Which of the following is NOT one of these strategies?
Question 9 (5 points)
The __________ period took place in March and April 2000 and caused a 45% decline of the NASDAQ by the end of that year.
grassroots of e-business
Question 10 (5 points)
A(n) __________ corporation is a company with headquarters in one country that does business in two or more countries and does so with substantial foreign direct investment.
Question 11 (5 points)
The central goal of strategy is to achieve sustainable competitive advantage over rivals and thereby to:
ensure lasting profitability.
achieve economies of scale and scope.
increase customer value.
lower transaction costs.
Question 12 (5 points)
The most recent and unstoppable trend in globalization of business and economic interdependence is:
Question 13 (5 points)
The e-business strategy framework consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
Question 14 (5 points)
The __________ integrates different perspectives of strategy into a holistic model.
transaction cost theory
concept of economies of scale and scope
strategic analysis framework
Question 15 (5 points)
The goal of __________ strategy is to achieve (long-term) success by building up one or more sources of competitive advantage.
Question 16 (5 points)
The __________ stage of a technological revolution, also called the “gilded age,” is characterized by a sense of exploration and exuberance as entrepreneurs, engineers, and investors alike try to find the best opportunities created by the technological big bang irruption.
Question 17 (5 points)
The overall goal of developing an e-business strategy is to:
lower transaction costs.
achieve economies of scale and scope.
increase customer value.
succeed in using the Internet as an enabler for achieving a competitive advantage.
Question 18 (5 points)
In the context of e-business strategies, the concept of __________ deserves special attention because many Internet start-ups that ended up in bankruptcy at the end of the Internet boom years did not pay enough attention to this issue.
Question 19 (5 points)
The rise of the __________ period started with the launch of Amazon.com in 1995 and continued until 2000.
grassroots of e-business
Question 20 (5 points)
The __________ stage of a technological revolution takes place right after a new technology is introduced to the market.
FNU Pathophysiology Quiz(Already graded A )
FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2
A 70-year-old woman has received a diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) after a clinical investigation sparked by the presence of leukocytosis in her routine blood work. What clinical course should her care provider tell her to expect?
A. “It's likely that this will give you chronic fatigue and malaise for the rest of your life, but that will probably be the extent of your symptoms.”
B. “Unfortunately, your leukemia will likely enter a crisis mode within a few weeks if we don't treat it immediately.”
C. “You could remain the chronic stage of CML for several years before it accelerates and culminates in a crisis.”
D. “You can expect your blood results, fatigue, and susceptibility to infection to gradually worsen over a few years.”
Following an injury resulting in a small cut from a knife, the first cells to go to the area of the cut would be the
Which of the following diagnostic findings is likely to result in the most serious brain insult?
A. Moderate decrease in brain tissue volume secondary to a brain tumor removal
B. High intracellular concentration of glutamate
C. Increased ICP accompanied by hyperventilation
D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) that equals intracranial pressure (ICP)
Which of the following patients would be most likely to be experiencing an increase in renal erythropoietin production?
A. A 70-year-old woman admitted with dehydration secondary to an overdose of her potassium-wasting diuretic
B. A 21-year-old man with acute blood loss secondary to a motor vehicle accident 3 hours prior
C. A 68-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera
D. A 71-year-old smoker admitted to hospital with exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
A college student has been experiencing frequent headaches that he describes as throbbing and complaining of difficulty concentrating while studying. Upon cerebral angiography, he is found to have an arteriovenous malformation. Which of the following pathophysiological concepts is likely responsible for his symptoms?
A. Localized ischemia with areas of necrosis noted on CT angiography
B. High pressure and local hemorrhage of the venous system
C. Hydrocephalus and protein in the cerebral spinal fluid
D. Increased tissue perfusion at the site of the malformation
A group of nursing students were studying for their pathophysiology exam by quizzing each other about disorders of WBCs and lymphoid tissue. When asked what the first chromosomal abnormality that identified cancer was, one student correctly answered Answers:
A. interleukin cells.
A 47-year-old woman was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 3 years ago and has experienced a progressive onset and severity of complications. She has been admitted to a palliative care unit due to her poor prognosis? What assessments and interventions should the nursing staff of the unit prioritize in their care?
A. Regular pain assessment and administration of opioid analgesics as needed
B. Cardiac monitoring and administration of inotropic medications
C. Assessment and documentation of cognitive changes, including confusion and restlessness
D. Assessment of swallowing ability and respiratory status
A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia. What will be the primary goal of his treatment?
A. To increase the amount of oxygen distributed by his red blood cells
B. To reduce the viscosity of his blood
C. To reduce the mean size of his red cells
D. To control his hypertension
During a late night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?
C. Frontal lobe
D. Basal ganglia
The family members of an elderly patient are wondering why his “blood counts” are not rising after his last GI bleed. They state, “He has always bounced back after one of these episodes, but this time it isn't happening. Do you know why?” The nurse will respond based on which of the following pathophysiological principles?
A. “Don't worry about it. We can always give him more blood.”
B. “Due to stress, the red blood cells of older adults are not replaced as promptly as younger people.”
C. “Everything slows down when you get older. You just have to wait and see what happens.”
D. “The doctor may start looking for another cause of his anemia, maybe cancer of the bone.”
A 44-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with abnormal bleeding and abdominal pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease. Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a cause of the patient's bleeding?
A. Hemophilia B
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Excess calcium
D. Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Your ESRD patient is receiving 2 units of packed red blood cells for anemia (Hgb of 8.2). Twenty minutes into the first transfusion, the nurse observes the patient has a flushed face, hives over upper body trunk, and is complaining of pain in lower back. His vital signs include pulse rate of 110 and BP drop to 95/56.What is the nurse's priority action? Answers:
A. Recheck the type of blood infusing with the chart documentation of patient's blood type. B. Discontinue the transfusion and begin an infusion of normal saline.
C. Slow the rate of the blood infusion to 50 mL/hour.
D. Document the assessment as the only action.
A 5th grade elementary student asks the school nurse how much blood is in an entire body. The nurse should respond that the average grown-up adult has
A. 2 to 4 cups of blood in his or her body.
B. 5 to 6 L of blood throughout his or her body.
C. 3 pints of blood in total.
D. 3 to 4 quarts of blood in his or her body.
The geriatrician providing care for a 74-year-old man with diagnosis of Parkinson disease has recently changed the client's medication regimen. What is the most likely focus of the pharmacologic treatment of the man's health problem?
A. Preventing demyelination of the efferent cerebellar pathways
B. Preventing axonal degradation of motor neurons
C. Maximizing acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles at neuromuscular junctions
D. Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system
A student makes the statement to a colleague, “Blood plasma is essentially just a carrier for the formed elements like red blood cells and white blood cells.”What would be the most accurate response to this statement?
A. “Not really. Plasma also contributes to the processes of protein synthesis and hematopoiesis.”
B. “Actually, plasma plays a significant role in nutrient and waste transport.”
C. “Actually, plasma is integral to the proper function of the liver and maintenance of acid–base balance.”
D. “That's not really true. Plasma is crucial in the immune and inflammatory responses.”
Several months ago, a 20-year-old male suffered a spinal cord injury brought about by a snowboard trick gone wrong. The lasting effects of his injury include a flaccid bowel and bladder and the inability to obtain an erection. While sensation has been completely preserved in his legs and feet, his motor function is significantly impaired. What type of incomplete spinal cord injury has the man most likely experienced?
A. Central cord syndrome
B. Conus medullaris syndrome
C. Brown-Séquard syndrome
D. Anterior cord syndrome
A client with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to alcohol abuse and a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL has been ordered a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client possesses type B antibodies but lacks type D antigens on his red cells. Transfusion of which of the following blood types would be least likely to produce a transfusion reaction?
Which of the following clients' signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult
A. has vomited and complained of a severe headache.
B. states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady.
C. has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech.
D. has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days.
Amniocentesis has suggested that a couple's first child will be born with sickle cell disease. The parents are unfamiliar with the health problem, and their caregiver is explaining the complexities. Which of the following statements by the parents would suggest a need for further teaching or clarification?
A. “Our baby's red cells are prone to early destruction because of his or her weak membranes.”
B. “Our son or daughter likely won't show the effects of sickling until he or she is school-aged because of the different hemoglobin in babies.”
C. “Not all of his or her red cells will be sickled, but low oxygen levels can cause them to become so.”
D. “Sickled cells can block his or her blood vessels, especially in the abdomen, chest, and bones.”
During science class, a student asks, “What's the difference between plasma and serum in the blood?” The nurse responds that the primary difference between plasma and serum is that plasma contains
A. hydrogen ions.
C. white blood cells.
During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the patient has had Guillain-Barré syndrome in his medical history. The patient asks, “What is that?” How should the nursing student reply?
A. “A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body that may even involve the respiratory muscles”
B. “Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot”
C. “A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker”
D. “Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot, and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well”
A 22-year-old female college student is shocked to receive a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What are the etiology and most likely treatment for her health problem?
A. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy
B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins
C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment
D. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids
A baseball player was hit in the head with a bat during practice. In the emergency department, the physician tells the family that he has a “coup”injury. How will the nurse explain this to the family so they can understand?
A. “It's like squeezing an orange so tight that the juice runs out of the top.”
B. “When the bat hit his head, his neck jerked backward causing injury to the spine.”
C. “Your son has a contusion of the brain at the site where the bat hit his head.”
D. “Your son has a huge laceration inside his brain where the bat hit his skull.”
Which of the following glycoproteins is responsible for treating such diseases as bone marrow failure following chemotherapy and hematopoietic neoplasms such as leukemia? Answers:
A. Growth factors and cytokines
B. T lymphocytes and natural killer cells
C. Neutrophils and eosinophils
D. Natural killer cells and granulocytes
While being on subcutaneous heparin injections for deep vein thrombosis during her latter pregnancy, a patient begins to experience major side effects. Her OB-GYN physician has called in a specialist who thinks that the patient is experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The nurse should anticipate which of the following orders?
A. Immediately discontinue the heparin therapy
B. Switch to Coumadin 2.5 mg once/day
C. Decrease the dose of heparin from 5000 units b.i.d to 3000 units b.i.d
D. Infuse FFP stat
Which of the following individuals would most likely experience global ischemia to his or her brain?
A. A woman who is being brought to hospital by ambulance following suspected carbon monoxide poisoning related to a faulty portable heater
B. A male client who has just had an ischemic stroke confirmed by CT of his head
C. A woman who has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected intracranial bleed
D. A man who has entered cardiogenic shock following a severe myocardial infarction
A new mother and father are upset that their 2-day-old infant is requiring phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. The pediatrician who has followed the infant since birth is explaining the multiplicity of factors that can contribute to high serum bilirubin levels in neonates. Which of the following factors would the physician be most likely to rule out as a contributor?
A. Transitioning of hemoglobin F (HbF) to hemoglobin A (HbA)
B. Hepatic immaturity of the infant
D. The fact that the infant is being breast-fed
A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms?
A. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genome of others.
B. The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy's neutrophils.
C. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes.
D. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes.
A 16-year-old female has been brought to her primary care physician by her mother due to the girl's persistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl's history and examination would lead the physician to rule out infectious mononucleosis?
A. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally.
B. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged.
C. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count.
D. The girl has a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) and has enlarged lymph nodes.
A 30-year-old woman who has given birth 12 hours prior is displaying signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client's husband is confused as to why a disease of coagulation can result in bleeding. Which of the nurse's following statements best characterizes DIC?
A. “The same hormones and bacteria that cause clotting also cause bleeding.”
B. “Massive clotting causes irritation, friction, and bleeding in the small blood vessels.”
C. “So much clotting takes place that there are no available clotting components left, and bleeding ensues.”
D. “Excessive activation of clotting causes an overload of vital organs, resulting in bleeding.”
A 20-year-old has been diagnosed with an astrocytic brain tumor located in the brain stem. Which of the following statements by the oncologist treating the client is most accurate?
A. “Our treatment plan will depend on whether your tumor is malignant or benign.”
B. “This is likely a result of a combination of heredity and lifestyle.”
C. “The major risk that you face is metastases to your lungs, liver, or bones.”
D. “Your prognosis will depend on whether we can surgically resect your tumor.”
A patient diagnosed with low-risk chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) has recently developed thrombocytopenia. One of the medications utilized to treat this would be Answers:
A. cisplatin, a chemotherapeutic.
B. vincristine, a Vinca alkaloid.
C. dexamethasone, a corticosteroid.
D. doxorubicin, a cytotoxic antibiotic.
Two nursing students are attempting to differentiate between the presentations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which of the students' following statements best captures an aspect of the two health problems? Answers:
A. “ITP can be either inherited or acquired, and if it's acquired, it involves an enzyme deficiency.”
B. “Both of them involve low platelet counts, but in TTP, there can be more, not less, hemostasis.
C. “TTP can be treated with plasmapheresis, but ITP is best addressed with transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.”
D. “Both diseases can result from inadequate production of thrombopoietin by megakaryocytes.”
A physician is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the importance of completing his course of antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis. The physician explains the damage that could occur to lung tissue by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the physician's explanation?
A. Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation.
B. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens.
C. Macrophages form a capsule around the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas.
D. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis.
A teenager, exposed to West Nile virus a few weeks ago while camping with friends, is admitted with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity. The teenager is also displaying some lethargy and disorientation. The nurse knows which of the following medical diagnoses listed below may be associated with these clinical manifestations?
B. Lyme disease
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. Spinal infection
A patient has been diagnosed with anemia. The physician suspects an immune hemolytic anemia and orders a Coombs test. The patient asks the nurse what this test will tell the doctor. The nurse replies,
A. “They are looking for the presence of antibody or complement on the surface of the RBC.”
B. “They will look at your RBCs under a microscope to see if they have an irregular shape (poikilocytosis).”
C. “They will wash your RBCs and then mix the cells with a reagent to see if they clump together.”
D. “They will be looking to see if you have enough ferritin in your blood.”
A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail 4 days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in the bone marrow in response to the infection?
A. Phagocytosis by myelocytes
B. Increased segmented neutrophil production
C. High circulatory levels of myeloblasts
D. Proliferation of immature neutrophils
A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate?
A.“We think that his spleen is inhibiting the production of platelets by his bone marrow.”
B.“We believe that your son's spleen is causing the destruction of many of his blood platelets, putting him at a bleeding risk.”
C.“Your son's spleen is holding on to too many of his platelets, so they're not available for clotting.”
D.“Your son's spleen is inappropriately filtering out the platelets from his blood and keeping them from normal circulation.”
Question 39 A nurse practitioner is providing care for a client with low levels of the plasma protein gamma globulin. The nurse would recognize that the client is at risk of developing which of the following health problems?
B. Blood clots
A 32-year-old woman presents at her neighborhood health clinic complaining of weakness and a feeling of abdominal fullness. She reports that 6 months earlier she noticed that she had difficulty in maintaining the high level of energy she has relied on during her aerobic workouts over the past few years. Because she felt that she was in overall good health, but knew that women often need additional iron, she added a multiple vitamin with iron and some meat and leafy greens to her diet. She followed her plan carefully but had no increase in energy. Upon examination, her spleen is noted to be enlarged. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?
B. Accelerated CML
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Stage A Hodgkin disease
A nurse is providing care for several patients on an acute medical unit of a hospital.Which of the following patients would be most likely to benefit from hematopoietic growth factors?
A. A 61-year-old female patient with end-stage renal cancer
B. A 55-year-old obese male patient with peripheral neuropathy secondary to diabetes
C. A 51-year-old female patient with liver failure secondary to hepatitis
D. A 44-year-old man with a newly diagnosed brain tumor
Misinterpreting her physician's instructions, a 69-year-old woman with a history of peripheral artery disease has been taking two 325 mg tablets of aspirin daily. How has this most likely affected her hemostatic status?
A. The binding of an antibody to platelet factor IV produces immune complexes.
B. The patient's prostaglandin (TXA2) levels are abnormally high.
C. Irreversible acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase activity has occurred.
D. She is at risk of developing secondary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
Question 43 Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate with a client who has a recent diagnosis of von Willebrand disease?
A. “Make sure that you avoid taking aspirin.”
B. “Your disease affects your platelet function rather than clot formation.”
C. “Clotting factor VIII can help your body compensate for the difficulty in clotting.”
D. “It's important that you avoid trauma.”
A nurse at a long-term care facility provides care for an 85-year-old man who has had recent transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which of the following statements best identifies future complications associated with TIAs? TIAs
A. are caused by small bleeds that can be a warning sign of an impending stroke.
B. are a relatively benign sign that necessitates monitoring but not treatment.
C. are an accumulation of small deficits that may eventually equal the effects of a full CVA. D. resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke.
Following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents?
A. “If you or the care team notices any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan.”
B. “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.”
C. “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.”
D. “Your daughter's condition is an unfortunate combination with total loss of consciousness but continuation of all other normal brain functions.”
A couple who is expecting their first child has been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple has approached their caregiver with this request and is seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting it. How can their caregiver best respond to the couple's enquiry? Stem cells can
A. “be used as source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system.”
B. “help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself.”
C. “be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise.”
D. “help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects.”
Question 47 A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate?
A. “Ferritin is a protein–iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.”
B. “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.”
C. “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to red blood cells that need it.”
D. “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.”
A 13-year-old African American boy comes to the ER complaining of fatigue and a rapid heartbeat. In conversation with the father, it becomes apparent to you that the boy has grown 2 inches in the previous 5 months. What is the first problem the health care team would attempt to rule out?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
In which of the following patients, would diagnostic investigations least likely reveal increased thrombopoietin production?
A. A 55-year-old man with dehydration secondary to Crohn disease
B. An 81-year-old woman with diagnoses of rheumatoid arthritis and failure to thrive
C. A 66-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases
D. A 21-year-old woman awaiting bone marrow transplant for myelogenous leukemia
A hospital laboratory technologist is analyzing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient. Which of the following statements best reflects an aspect of the platelets that would constitute part of the CBC?
A. New platelets are released from the bone marrow into circulation.
B. The half-life of a platelet is typically around 8 to 12 days.
C. Platelets originate with granulocyte colony–forming units (CFU).
D. The α-granules of platelets contribute primarily to vasoconstriction.
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 4 (Already graded A )
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 4
Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?
a. Macular degeneration
c. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
d. Cupping of the optic disc
Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?
a. Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.
b. Instill half the usual dosage.
c. Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.
d. Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation
When there is an imbalance found with the corneal light test, you should then perform the ___________ test.
d. visual acuity
White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris are called:
a. drusen bodies.
b. cotton wool spots.
c. rust spots.
d. Brushfield spots.
Which of the following may be suggestive of Down syndrome?
a. Drusen bodies
c. Narrow palpebral fissures
d. Prominent epicanthal folds
You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first:
a. dim the room lights.
b. elicit pain.
c. place him in the supine position.
d. shine the penlight in his or her eyes.
When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by:
a. brisk blinking.
b. copious tearing.
c. pupil dilation.
d. reflex smiling.
Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of:
a. lipid metabolism.
b. cognitive function.
c. renal metabolism.
d. bone marrow function.
You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose.You are assessing for:
a. confrontation reaction.
c. pupillary light reflex.
Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?
a. Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes
b. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision
c. Blinking when bright light is directed at the face
d. White pupils on photographs
When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
Which risk factor is associated with the highest rate of oral cancers?
b. Being younger than 55 years
c. excessive caffeine use
d. Fanconi anemia
You are interviewing a parent whose child has a fever, is pulling at her right ear, and is irritable. You ask the parent about the child’s appetite and find that the child has a decreased appetite. This additional finding is more suggestive of:
a. acute otitis media.
b. otitis externa.
c. serous otitis media.
d. middle ear effusion.
Which of the following signs and symptoms occur with a sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
a. Air conduction shorter than bone conduction
b. Lateralization to the affected ear
c. Loss of high-frequency sounds
d. Speaks more loudly
e. Disorder of the inner ear
f. Air conduction longer than bone conduction
Which variation may be an expected finding in the ear examination of a newborn?
a. Diffuse light reflex
b. Purulent material in the ear canal
c. Redness and swelling of the mastoid process
d. Small perforations of the tympanic membrane
White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:
a. Fordyce spots.
b. aphthous ulcers.
c. Stensen ducts.
You are performing Weber and Rinne hearing tests. For the Weber test, the sound lateralized to the unaffected ear; for the Rinne test, air conduction–to–bone conduction ratio is less than 2:1. You interpret these findings as suggestive of:
a. a defect in the inner ear.
b. a defect in the middle ear.
c. otitis externa.
d. impacted cerumen.
You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?
Which abnormality is common during pregnancy?
a. Eruption of additional molars
b. Hypertrophy of the gums
c. Otitis externa
d. Otitis media
You are using a pneumatic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to:
a. remove all cerumen from the canal.
b. make sure the speculum is sealed form outside air.
c. squeeze the bulb with more force.
d. insert the speculum to depth of 2 cm.
Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy?
a. Palpation of the gland becomes difficult.
b. A bruit is auscultated.
c. Inspection reveals a goiter.
d. The gland is tender on palpation
Which type of headache usually occurs at night, is precipitated by alcohol consumption, and occurs more often in men than in women?
a. Classic migraine
b. Temporal arteritis
Which of the following is true regarding caput succedaneum?
a. It is a subperiosteal collection of blood.
b. It is firm and its edges are well defined.
c. It develops several days after delivery.
d. It is seen over the presenting part of thehead
You are palpating a patient’s thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left.These data would indicate:
a. a congenital anomaly.
b. a normal thyroid gland.
c. a multinodular goiter.
Which of the following findings would be consistent with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
a. Corneal clouding
b. Eye slanting
c. Mild ptosis
d. Symmetric, bulging fontanels
Which of the following is a chronic autoimmune disorder?
d. myasthenia gravis
Which cranial nerves innervate the face?
a. II and V
b. III and VI
c. V and VII
d. VIII and IX
You are examining Ms. L, age 78 years. You find a sunken appearance of her eyes, cheeks, and temporal areas. Her skin is dry, and her nose appears sharp. This description of Ms. L’s facies is associated with:
a. cutis laxa syndrome.
b. Hurler syndrome.
c. old age.
d. terminal illness.
Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma?
a. It is bound by suture lines.
b. The affected part feels soft.
c. It is obvious at birth.
d. The margins are poorly defined
Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?
a. Flexed away from the side being examined
b. Flexed directly forward
c. Flexed toward the side being examined
d. Hyperextended directly backward
NUR6550 Final Exam (Already graded A )
1. The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
2. Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Deep venous thrombosis
All of the above
3. Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
4. The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
5. Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
• Na 126 mEq/L
• K 4.0 mEq/L
• Cl 93 mEq/L
• CO2 28 mEq/L
• BUN 40 mg/dL
• Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
6. Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
All of the above
7. What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
8. Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
9. What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
10. Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
11. A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
12. You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
13. While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
30 mg/dL protein
14. All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
15. A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
16. You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
17. You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
18. A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Transient ischemic attack.
19. You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
20. 32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
Anti-HAV Negative HBsAg Negative Anti-HCV Positive
IgM Negative Anti-HBc Negative HCV RNA Negative
IgM NegativeAnti-HBs Positive
You recognize the patient is susceptible to:
Hepatitis A and B
Hepatitis B and C
Hepatitis B only
Hepatitis A only
21. When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
22. When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
23. The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Scope of practice.
24. When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
25. The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
26. A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
27. An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Arterial Blood Gas
28. A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
29. A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
30. A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
31. You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Drug-related adverse reaction.
32. An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
33. In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
34. An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
35. A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
36. "Incident-to" services are defined as those which are "an integral, although incidental, part of the physician's personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness". As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
37. A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
38. You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
39. You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Angiotensin receptor blocker
40. A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
41. Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
42. Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
43. A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
44. You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
45. All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
46. When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
47. When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
48. Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
49. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
50. Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
51. The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Dietary reduction of amines.
52. All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
53. A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
54. A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
55. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )